OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

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1.OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1)        Lubrication of ERC and inserts in corrosion prone areas and platform line is
done once in a ________.
2)        Minimum   rail   section   recommended   for   section   having   traffic     more   than
20GMTs is _____.
3)        The rail dolley shall be protected  by a flagman at a distance of _____metre on
BG from the rail dolley, on a double line in the direction from which train may
approach.
4)          Permanent closure in running lines for locations such as 500 metre length on
both side approaches of tunnels, tunnel proper, major and important bridges
including bridge proper, deep cuttings and high embankments should not be
less than______ in length, between two adjoining fish plates.
5)          Distance   block   to   platform   line   are   fixed   at     centre   to   centre   distance   of
_________.
6)  Points & Crossing is laid at a cant of
i)         1 in 20
ii)        1 in 10
iii)       1 in 15
iv)       NIL
7)        Minimum   permissible   vertical   wear  on   nose  of     a   52   kg  CMS   crossing  on
Rajdhani route is
i)         6mm
ii)        8mm
iii)       10mm
iv)       12 mm

8)        Minimum radius of curves for BG track is______.
9)        Minimum height above rail level for high passenger platform is _________.
10)      Maximum grade in station yard is ______.
11)       Minimum speed restriction to be imposed for Track renewal is
i)         Stop dead &10Kmph
ii)        10 Kmph
iii)       15Kmph
iv)       20 Kmph
12)      Vertical wear permissible for 60kg/90UTS. rails is ________.
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Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
13) Permissible wear of web & foot of rail  due to  corrosion  is ________.
14) Service life in terms of total GMT carried for 52 kg. 90 UTS rail is______
15) Permissible variation of sleepers to sleeper spacing is ______.
16) Normal life of detonators is
i)         5 years
ii)        10 years
iii)       7 years
iv)       6 years.
17) Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges on bridges with main spans of 100metre
or more is
i)         50 mtr
ii)        100 mtr
iii)       200 mtr
iv)       a refuge over each pair .
18) Permissible vertical wear for tongue rail of 52kg. lefthand fanshape curved switch is
_____.
19) Permissible creep in track is
i)         50 mm
ii)        100 mm
iii)       125 mm
iv)       150 mm.
20) Maximum distance covered in a day by  a Patrolman should not normally exceed
i)         2 km.
ii)        5 km.
iii)       10 km.
iv)       20 km .
 
21)      In case of 52 kg CMS Crossing dimension to be deducted (to account for slope
in casting of wing rail to 1:20 cant)  from the observed wear measurements to
find out the actual wear is ______
Answers
1)        Year    2)        60 kg   3)        1200 meter      4)        11 meter          5)        30
meter
6)        NIL     7)        8 mm   8)        175 meter        9)        760 mm 10)      1   in
400
Page 4 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
11)   20Kmph  12)      13 mm 13)      1.5 mm 14)      525 GMT        15)      ±20
mm
16)    7 years    17)     a refuge over each pier 18)      5 mm 19)      150
mm
20)    20 Km.  21)      2 mm
A] Fill in the Blanks:
1.         Dynamic gauge in BG is 1750 mm    .
2.         Maximum super elevation for BG, group ‘A’ route under normal conditions is
165 mm            .
3.         Maximum degree of a curve, permitted on a plain BG track is 10      o   .
4.         Maximum values of normal cant deficiency prescribed for BG, A & B groups is
75 mm.
5.         The maximum size of track ballast is 65 mm.
6.         Minimum depth of ballast cushion below the bottom of sleeper at the rail seat
should be 300 mm on BG group A route.
7.         Centre to centre spacing (maximum) of wooden sleepers on fish plated BG track
is 30 cm                .
8.         Centre to centre spacing (maximum) of wooden sleepers on fish plated BG
track, between joint sleepers and first shoulder sleeper is 61 cm.
9.         Sleeper density for group ‘A’ route with traffic density more than 20 GMT is
1660 sleepers per kilometer.
10.       The permissible speed, for 1 in 8 ½ symmetrical split with curved switch on BG
track, is 30 kmph    .
11.       Speed in excess of 15 kmph       should not be permitted on turn in curves laid with
wooden sleepers.
12.       SWR shall not be laid on curves sharper than 500 metres       radius in both BG and
MG.
13.       The lubrication of ERCs and insert should be done once in a year       in corrosion
prone areas and platform lines and once in two years       in other areas.
14.       For all bridges, in case of LWR track, full ballast section, as specified in LWR
Manual should be provided upto 100 metres       from the abutments.
Page 5 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
15.       Flange-way clearance of BG turnouts between running rail and check rail at
nose of crossing is 48 mm (maximum) and 44 mm (minimum).
16.       Throw   of   the   switch   of   BG   turnouts   is  115   mm   (maximum)  and  95   mm
(minimum).
17.       There are special chairs provided behind the heel of switch to give a suitable
ramp to the tongue rail, which is raised by 6 mm at the heel.
Page 6 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
2.Objective Questions on Track Machines
(1)       What is the gauge of Auxiliary Track for working of PQRSs?
(A)       3400 mm (B)       3700 mm
(C)       3000 mm (D)       1676 mm
(2)       How many on On-Track track machines can work in a block section at a
time as per subsidiary rule?
(A)       One (B)       Three
(C)       Five (D)       Four
(3)       Which machine is not a relaying machine:
(A)       T-28 (B)       TRT
(C)       PQRS (D)       UTV
(4)       What shall be the minimum safe distance between track machines when
moving in the block section in convey?
(A)       50 m (B)       180 m
(C)       120 m (D)       200 m
(5)       As per IRTMM, the auxiliary track for PQRS working can be higher than
the existing track by not more than:
(A)       40 mm (B)       50 mm
(C)       25 mm (D)       10 mm
(6)       The size of wooden battens for loading PSC sleepers on special BFRs for
TRT working shall be
(A)       50 mm X 50 mm (B)       75 mm X 75 mm
(C)       100 mm X 100 mm (D)       None of the above
(7)       Maintenance tamping of track during summer season shall not be done
when the rail temperature is more than:
(A)       td (B)       td+5
(C)       td + 10 (D)       td – 5
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Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
(8)       What shall be the distance between two track machines during working in
a block section?
(A)       50 m (B)       120 m
(C)       90 m (D)       180 m
(9)       What is the minimum cushion of clean ballast is recommended for proper
functioning of tamping machines?
(A)       50 mm (B)       75 mm
(C)       100 mm (D)       150 mm
(10)     Recommended tamping (squeezing)          pressure for PSC sleeper track,
is
(A)       90 – 100 Kg/Sq.cm. (B)       100 – 110 Kg/Sq.cm.
(C)       110 – 120 Kg/Sq.cm. (D)       120 – 130 Kg/Sq.cm.
(11)     The tamping tools shall be replaced when the sectional area of the tool
blade is reduced by
(A)       15% (B)       20%
(C)       25% (D)       30%
(12)     What are the main functions of tamping machines?
(A)       Correction of Alignment      (B)       Correction of longitudinal
(C)       Packing under sleepers      (D)       All of above
(13)     Which small track machine is not required for doing welding of rails in
LWRs?
(A)       Hydraulic Rail Bender (B)       Double     Action     Weld
Trimmer
(C)       Rail Profile Grinder (D)       Rail Cutting Machine
(14)     What is the capacity of non-infringing track jacks normally used for track
maintenance
(A)       8 T (B)       9 T
(C)       10 T (D)       12 T
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Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
(15)     What are advantages of using Dynamic Track Stabilizer machine
(A)       Achieving Spatial Force to  (B)       Regaining the resistance
           free consolidation  lateral displacement
(C)       Relaxing the speed Restriction      (D)       All of above.
expeditiously
(16)     What is recommended squeezing time for maintenance packing
(A)       0.2 sec to 0.4 sec (B)       0.4 sec to 0.6 sec
(C)       0.6 sec to 0.8 sec (D)       0.8 sec to 1.0 sec
(17)     What shall be the ramp gradient before closing the tamping work and
obligatory      point?
(A)       1 in 600 (B)       1 in 800
(C)       1 in 1000 (D)       1 in 1500
(18)     Two insertions during tamping of concrete sleepers and required for lift
more than
(A)       10 mm (B)       30 mm
(C)       50 mm (D)       75 mm
(19)     After   one  round   of  tamping   along  with   DTS  after  deep   screening,  the
traffic can be resumed with speed restriction of:
(A)       30 KMPH (B)       40 KMPH
(C)       60 KMPH (D)       75 KMPH
(20)     Which machine is used for turnout renewals:
(A)       TRT (B)       PQRS
(C)       T-28 (D)       RAIL-VAC
Answers: - 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-C, 8-A, 9-D, 10-C, 11-B, 12-D, 13-A, 14-A,
15-D, 16-B, 17-C, 18-B, 19-B, 20-C.
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Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
3.Objective Questions P & D,SOD
1.      In   which   category   suburban   stations   have   been
included   as   per   categorization   of   station   for
passenger amenities?
‘C’
2.      What   is   the   norms   for   booking   facilities   (no   of
counters) for a ‘A’ category station as per minimum
essential amenities?
15
3.      What is the maximum height above rail level of end
loading platform for BG?
1295mm
4.      What is the full form of IVRS?  Interactive voice
Response system.
5.      What is the criteria for a ‘D’ category station?  Passenger earn-
ings between Rs.1
crore and Rs.3
crores per annum.
6.      What is the minimum distance of a 3-meters high
building   on   passenger   platform   from   centre   of
track?
5330mm
7.      In   how   many   categories   stations   have   been
categorized   from   passenger   amenities   point   of
view?
6 categories i.e. A,
B, C, D, E & F.
8.      What is minimum horizontal distance from centre of
track to any structure from rail level to 305 mm
above rail level for BG in station yard?
1675mm
9.      What is maximum and minimum horizontal distance
from center of track to face of passenger platform
coping for BG?
Max.1680mm
Min.1670mm
10.    What is maximum height above rail level for low-
level passenger platform for BG?
455mm
11     What is minimum horizontal distance of any
telegraph post measured from the center of track at
right angles to the nearest track for BG?
The height of post
+ 2135mm
12     What is the Plinth area of type-III Quarter? 55.75 sq. m.
13.    What is minimum no. of urinals required for 100
persons in a office building as per IRWM?
4 Nos.
14.    For what the word “SRSF” stands for? Special Railway
Safety Fund.
15     Name the plan head under which construction of a
health unit can be sanctioned?
Plan head 52:
Amenities for
staff
16.    In how many volumes works programme is  5 Nos.
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Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
prepared?
17.    In how many days soffit formwork to beams can be
removed?
7 days
18.    What is minimum distance from center line of track
to duty hut at L-Xing?
6.0 m
19     What is the characteristic compressive strength of
150mm cube at 28 days of M20 concrete?
20 N/mm2
20.    What is recommended gradient in station yard? 1:1000
Page 11 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
4. LEVEL CROSSINGS
Q.1.       What is the normal position of level crossing gate:
  a.     Branch line where Railway traffic is less and road traffic is more?
Ans.1a.    Open to road traffic.
    a.    On main line, where TVU is more than 25000.
Ans.1 b. Open to road traffic.
     a.     On B-class level crossing with TVU less than 25000
Ans.  1c.          Close to road traffic.
Q.2.           What is the new criteria of classification of manned level crossings?
Ans.2. Class Criteria
                        Special-       TVU>50,000
                         A                 TVU> 30,000
Or
Line capacity utilization more than 80% (on single line) and road vehicle more than
1,000)
                            B         TVU>20,000 & road vehicle more than 7.50
                            C         Under consideration of Railway Board.
Q.3  What is the minimum number of gatekeepers required in special class, A- class &
B-class?
Ans.3     3 numbers in special class.
              2 numbers in A & B classes.
 Q4. How the TVU is calculated?
Ans. 4. The multiplication of total number of train units from both side and number of
road vehicle unit is cold TVU of level crossing.
Q.5. What is the distance of WIL Boards for unmanned level crossings on single line
section and where visibility is clear?
Ans. 5.    350 meters.
Q.6. What is the minimum distance of height gauge in case of level crossings?
Ans.6. Height gauge should be located at a minimum distance of 8.00 m from gate
posts.
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Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q.7 What is the minimum length of fencing parallel to track with each gatepost on
special &A class?
Ans.7. 15 meters
Q.8. What is the minimum length of fencing parallel to track with each gatepost on B &
C class?
Ans. 8. 15 meters
Q.9.What is the gradient of road on C-class level crossing gates?
Ans.9 1:15 is the gradient provided on ‘C’ class level crossing gates.
Q.10.  Describe the types of gates are in Railway?
Ans. 10.There are two types of gates in Railway:
   Traffic gates
   Engineering gates
Q.11 What is the distance of speed breakers on the approaches of unmanned level
crossing?
Ans. 11.Speed breakers are provided at a distance of 20 M from gate.
Q.12.  What legend is written on stop Boards at level crossings?
Ans.   12.Stop,   look   out   for   trains   before   crossing   in   English,   Hindi   and   Regional
language is written on stop Boards.
Q.13. What is the visibility requirements for unmanned level crossing for road users?
Ans. 13For new unmanned level crossing the visibility requirements for road users
along the track shall be 600 m with single or double line track.
Page 13 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
5. QUESTIONNAIRE FOR 70% QUOTA EXAMINATION
                                                           
Q-1      Periodical census of traffic at all level crossings whether unmanned or
Manned should between at least
1.   Once in six years.
2.   Once in one year.
3.   Once in five years.
Q-2      Level crossing beyond the outer must stop signals is called
1.   Operating gate.
2.   Engineering Gate.
3.   Operating & Engg. gate.
4.   None of the above.
Q-3      Maximum clearance of check rails at level crossing should be
1.   44 mm
2.   48mm
3.   51mm
4.   57mm
Q-4      Minimum clearance of check rails at level crossing should be
1.   48 mm
2.   57 mm
3.   51 mm
4.   44 mm
Q.5      The gauge on BG route of Indian Railways maintained to
1.   1600mm
2.   1676mm
3.   1680mm
4.   None of above.
Q.6      Curve inspection shall be carried out by Sectional PWI
1.   Once in three months
2.   Once in six months
3.   Once in four months
4.   None of above.
Q.7      Curve inspection shall be carried out by PWI in charge
1.   Once in two months
2.   Once in four months
3.   Once in three months
4.   Once in six months.
Q.8      Foot plate Inspection shall be carried out by PWI
1.   Once in two months
2.   Once in one month
3.   Once in three month
4.   None of the above.
Page 14 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q.9      PWI/In charge and his Assistant should carry out the inspection of Points &
crossings of passenger running line by rotation
1.   Once in two months
2.   Once in three months
3.   Once in four months
4.   None of the above.
Q.10    When check rails of level crossing cannot be refixed & train have to be passed,
speed restriction should be imposed
1.   15 kmph
2.   30 kmph
3.   45 kmph
4.   None of the above.
Q-11    Averted collision is categories as
(a)       (b)       (c)       (d)
Q-12    An accident has taken place at out station and main line is blocked and relief
train is to be turned out without medical car.  The hooter shall be:
3 long 4 long 4 long, 1 short 3 long, and 1 short
Q-13    Permissible limit for wheel tread diameter for the same axle is
0.5mm 1.00mm 1.75mm 1.25mm
Q-14    Lateral and longitudinal clearance between axle box and axle guard should not
exceed
6mm 8mm 10mm 12mm
Q-15    In a semi permanent (BG) diversion the gradient should not be steeper than
1 in 75 1 in 125 1 in 100 1 in 150
Page 15 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
7. Track Recording.
Q1.      What is the limits of riding index.
Ans.    (i) 4.5  Imposition of speed restriction.
(ii) 3.5 For taking early maintenance.
(iii) 300 For satisfaction level of maintenance.
Q2.      What are the parameters which contributes to higher value of riding index.
Ans.    Twist, Misalignment, Unevenness and Gauge.
Q3.      What is means 0.35 Horizontal peak in OMS recording.
Ans.    Alignment kinks and gauge variation.
Q4.      Give the formula of TGI Value.
Ans.    2UI+GI+TI+GAI.
-----------------------
10
Q5.      What is the value of TGI for bad, good or very good.
Ans.    Below 36-Bad.
36 to 49 -Good.
50 to 79 -Very Good.
80 and above -Outstanding.
Q6.      What are the deficiencies in track which leads to vertical acceleration peak?
Ans.    (i)Low   joint   (ii)   Twist   (iii)Slacks   (iv)   Vertical   wear   of   the   rails.(v)Ballast
cushion deficiency (vi)Loose packing (vii)Weak formation (viii)Wornout sleeper seat.
Q7.      What are the deficiencies in track which leads to horizontal (lateral) acceleration
peak?
Ans.    (i)   Gauge   variation   (ii)   Mis-alignment   (iii)   Deficient   ballast   (iv)   Weak   rail
holding seats of the sleeper (v) Side lateral wear of the rail etc.
Q8.      What is the 8 peaks recorded by TRC and how do you make use of it
Ans.    8   peaks   recorded   by   TRC   means   worst   location   which   need   attention   for
improving the TGI Value.
Q9.      Prior to TRC what should be your priority for attaining various parameters for
effective improvement.
Ans.    (i) Attending gauging from one side to the other.
(ii) Attend low joints with picking of slacks.
Q10.    What is the frequency of TRC.
Ans.
Above 130 kmph. Once in two months.
Above 110 kmph Once in three months.
A&B route. Once in four months.
E&D route. Once in six months.
Group E special. Once in 12 months.
Page 16 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q11.    What is the frequency of Oscillograph high speed.
Ans.    Rajdhani route. -Once in four months.
Above 100 kmph.       -Once in six months.
Q12.    What is the frequency of OMS recording.
Ans.    Above 100 kmph.       -Once in a month.
Other route. -Once in two months.
Q13.    What is the value for Good, Bad, Outstanding track during OMS recording.
Ans.    Av.PPKM. Category of track.
(i) More than 2.00 below average.
(ii)1.00 to 2.00 Good.
(iii)0.25 to1.00 Very Good.
(iv)Upto 0.25. Outstanding.
Q14.    What is the peak value during OMS recording.
Ans.    Group A, Rajdhani/Shatabadi routes. -0.15g.
For other route. -0.20g.
Q15.    What is the value of CTR for category of track.
Ans.    (i)Negative. Below average.
(ii)0-30 Average.
(iii)30-55 Good.
(iv)56-75 Very Good.
(v)Above 75. Outstanding.
Q16.    What is the value of different chords on which SD value is measured for the
calculation of TGI.
Ans.    Uneveness 9.6M.
Twist 3.6M.
Alignment. 7.2M.
Q17.    As per CRS stipulation, after how month of recording on ‘A’route speed of
Rajdhani will be reduced.
Ans.    After expiry of 6 months of recording speed of Rajdhani will be reduced to 110
kmph.
Q18.    Write down the values of short chord and long chord of different parameter.
Ans.    Parameter. Standard. Long Chord.
Unevenness. 3.6M. 9.6M.
Twist. 3.6M. 4.8M.
Alignment. 7.2M. 9.6M.
Q19.    What   do  you   understand   by  three  stars   (xxx)  and   two   stars   (xx)  printed   in
printout of TRC.
Ans.    Three stars (xxx) means urgent maintenance and two stars(xx) means planned
maintenance is required.
Page 17 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q20.    What do you means by normalised SD value in track recording.
Ans.    Normalised SD value of a parameter is the measured SD value divided by SD
value prescribed for urgent maintenance.
Q21.    In TRC printout, if the index value of any parameter is less than 36.What does it
indicates.
Ans.    It indicates that the measured SD value is equal to or greater than SD value
specified for urgent maintenance.
Q22.    What parameters are recorded by OMS-2000.
Ans.    OMS records vertical , lateral acceleration and ride index.
Question on LWR.
Q1.      What is min. length of LWR?
Ans.    Greater than 250m on BG and 500 m on MG.
Q2.      What is min. cushion required for LWR?
Ans.    250mm.
Q3.      What is steepest grade permitted for LWR?
Ans.    1:100.
Q4.      Up to what degree of reverse curves LWR can be continued?
Ans.    Upto 875m radius i.e. 2”.
Q5.      Which rails sections are permitted for LWR?
Ans.    BG-90R/52kg./60kg.
MG-75R/90R.
Q6.      When the Hot weather patrolling is introduced?
Ans.    When the rail temp. exceeds td+20 0 C.
Q7.      When Cold weather patrolling is introduced?
Ans.    When rail temp. is less than td-30 0 C.
Q8.      What is the beat of patrolman in LWR/CWR section?
Ans.    Two kilometer for one patrolman.
Q9.      What is the lowest level of supervisor for destressing of LWR?
Ans.    PWI.
Q10.    What is mean rail temperature (tm)?
Ans.    It is the average of maximum and minimum temperatures recorded for a section.
Q11.    What is prevailing rail temperature(td)?
Ans.    Prevailing rail temperature (tp)is the rail temperature prevailing at the time when
any operation connected with destressing is carried out.
Page 18 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q12.    What is SEJ?
Ans.    It   is   switch   Expansion   Joint.   It   is   expansion   joint   installed   at   each   and   of
LWR/CWR to permit Expansion/Contraction of the adjoining breathing lengths due to
temperature variations.
Q13.    What is Glued Joint?
Ans.    The Glued joint G3(L) type is provided in all insulations for trackcircuting in
LWR/CWR.
Q14.    What is breathing length?
Ans.    Breathing length is that length at each end of LWR/CWR which is subjected to
Expansion/Contraction on account of temperature variations.
Q15.    What are Buffer Rails?
Ans.    Buffer rails are a set of rails provided in lieu of SEJ at the ends of LWR/CWR to
allow   Expansion/Contraction   of   adjoining   breathing   lengths   due   to   temperature
variations.   These   will   be   laid   with   prior   approval   of   Chief  Track   Engineer   at   the
locations where provision of SEJ is not permitted.
Q16.    Up to what degree of curve SEJ can be provided?
Ans.    Upto 0.5 0  curve.
Q17.    What is the condition regarding L-Xing in LWR/CWR?
Ans.    L.Xing should not fall in breathing length of LWR/CWR.
Q18.    What should be the gap at SEJ?
Ans.    Gap at SEJ shall be adjusted at the time of laying/subsequent destressing of
LWR/CWR as under:
Rail section laid. Gap to be provided at td.
52kg./60kg. 40mm.
Others. 60mm.
Q19.    Thermal force in LWR is calculated?
Ans.    The thermal force ‘P’ is calculated by the following formula:
P=EAxt
Where ‘P’-Thermal force in the rail(kg).
‘E’-Modulus of Elasticity of rail steel,(2.15x10kg/sq.cm).
A-Area of cross section of the rail (sq. cm).
d-Coefficient of linear expansion of steel (152x10/ 0 C).
t-Variation of rail temperature from td/t(C 0 ).
Q20.    What is destressing temperature (td)?
Ans.    Destressing temperature (td) is the average trail temperature during the period of
fastening the rails to the sleepers after destressing LWR without the use of rail tensor. If
rail tensor is used, td for all practical purposes is equal to stress free temperature to
Range of td or t o  shall be within the limits of rail temperature shown below:-
Rail Section. Range.
(i)52kg. and heavier. tm+5 0 C to tm+10 0 C.
(ii)Others. tm to tm+5 0 C.
Page 19 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
8.General mixed questions.
A] FIND THE CORRECT STATEMENT
1.         In case of heel and C.I blocks behind the heel, all holes are perpendicular to:
<WA>Perpendicular to left hand side<WA>Drilled at angle Q/2<CA>Right hand side
of block<WA>None of these
2.         The two locations where wear of tongue rail is to measured are:
<WA>150mm and 1m behind ATS  <WA>300mm behind ATS and at H.<CA>Where
head width of tongue rail is 13mm and at JOH
3.         No part of the tree shall be nearer than ... from the nearest live conductor
<CA>4 m<WA>5 m<WA>6 m<WA>7 m
4.         Max. rate of change of cant/cant deficiency on transition curve is
<WA>45mm/Sec.       <CA>55mm/Sec.        <WA>35mm/Sec.       <WA>25mm/Sec.
5          Frequency of inspection of manned level Xing by PWI is
<CA>Once a month   <WA>Once a week    <WA>Once a fortnight <WA>Once
in 6 months
.6.        During welding of a rail joint with tensor, tensor may be opened after
<WA>5 minutes         <WA>10 minutes       <WA>15 minutes       <CA>20 minutes
7.         Maximum speed of Lorry when visibility is clear
<WA>6 Kmph<CA>10 Kmph <WA>15 Kmph          <WA>20 Kmph
8.         For 52 Kg 75 mm Gap welding finished weld tolerances are measure by
<WA>10   cm   straight   edge   <CA>15   cm   straight   edge   <WA>25   cm   straight   edge
<WA>1 m straight edge
9.         Speed   restiction   on   rail   clusters   shall   be   <CA>10   Kmph<WA>15
Kmph<WA>20 Kmph<WA>30 Kmph
10.       The   speed   restriction   on   level   Xing   if   check   rail   is   not   fixed   <WA>20
Kmph<CA>30 Kmph<WA>40 Kmph<WA>50 Kmph
11.       The equilibrium super elevation is
<WA>Directly   proportional   to   V      <CA>Directly   proportional   to   square   of   V
<WA>Inversely proportional to V <WA>Not related to V
12.       Minimum clean cushion required for TTM working is
<WA>100mm  <CA>150mm  <WA>200mm  <WA>300mm
[
Page 20 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
B] FIND THE INCORRECT STATEMENT
1. Maximum Horizontal distance from centre of track to face of any platform wall in
BG is 1905mm.
2. Maximum height above rail level for high level passenger platform is 840 mm.
3. Maximum height above rail level for low passenger platform is 405mm.
4. Minimum horizontal distance from centre of track to face of any platform wall in BG
is 1675mm  
Answer 3
FIND THE INCORRECT STATEMENT
1.The designed Toe-load of ERC MK III flat Toe is 850-1100kg
2.The Toe load deflection corresponding to the designed toe load for MK III flat toe clip
    is 13.5mm .
3.The approximate weight of ERC MK III flat toe is 0.91kg.
4.The Bar dia of ERC MK III flat toe is 18.64.
Answer 4
1.Minimum distance of height gauge at level crossing from gate post is 10 m.
2.Minimum height of height gauge at level crossing from road level is 4.67 m.
3.Minimum distance of gate post at level crossing from centre line of track is 3 m .
4.Minimum distance of gate lodge from centre line of track is 6 m.
Answer 1
1.Ride index is a measure of passenger comfort.
2.Indian railway has adopted Dr. Sperling Ride index formula.
3.He was a Franch Engineer .
4.Lower value of Ride Index are preferable.
Answer 3
1.Minimum distance of stop board from centre line of track on unmanned level crossing
is 5 m .
2.Minimum distance of whistle board at level crossing from end of road is 600 m.
3.Minimum distance of speed breakers at level crossing from gate post is 30 m
4.Minimum distance of fish plated joints in SWR track from end of level crossing is 6
m.
Answer 3
The reason for providing super elevation is
1.To have a better distribution of load on two rails. 2.To reduce the wear & tear of rails
and rolling stocks.
3.To neutralise the effect of centrifugal force.
4.To increase the haulage capacity of vehicle.
ANSWER 3
Fill in the Blanks
Page 21 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
1          Laying tolerance for sleeper spacing is...+/_ 20mm..."
2          The minimum radius for vertical curves on 'A' route is...4000....m"
3          Modulus of elasticity of rail steel is     ........2.15*10..Kg/sqcm"
4          "Lateral wear permitted for 60kg tongue rail is"..8mm
5          Squeezing pressure in case of PRC sleeper is..110 to 120kg/sqcm....."
The normal life of detonators is seven years. The life of the detonators can be extended
to    ten    years on an yearly basis subject to the condition that two detonators from each
lot of over 7 year old ones are tested for the explosive content and the results being
found satisfactory.
For new unmanned level X-ings the visibility requirements for road users along the
track shall be 600 m with single or double line track. Where this is not feasible, the
distance may be reduced suitably with the approval of Chief Engineer provided the
maximum permissible speed is less than    100 kmph
In case of LWR if rail temperature after a maintenance operation exceeds td + 20 degree
C, then during the period of consolidation as per para 1.18 of LWR manual a speed
restriction of    50 kmph     on BG shall be imposed when shoulder and crib compaction
has been done.
C] WHAT IS MY NAME
      I can rebuild the lateral resistance of track 2. My maximum self propelled speed  
             is 60 Kmph
2.          My working speed is 0 to 2.5 Kmph  4.I am Primarily used behind the tamping
machine 5. My weight is 57 Tonnes
             ANSWER  Dynamic track stablizer
3          . I am essential for protection of the track. 2. I need careful custody 3. My colour
is red   4. My extended life is 10 years 5. I sound caution to the driver
ANSWER DETONATOR
4.           I am an activity to be performed once in every 10 years 2. I am useful in
improving drainage
5          . I am useful in improving running on track  4. I am an activity to be performed
under speed restriction
6.          I am an activity for which sufficient ballast has to be arranged
ANSWER DEEP SCREENING
7          . I am an activity to be performed during moderate temperature 2. I require
looking mirror and convex lens
8          . When performed on large scale speed restriction shall be required 4. If I am
carefully performed the fracture instances will be minimised  5. I facilitate expansion
and contraction of fish plated joints
ANSWER Lubrication of fish plated joints
D] TRUE/ FALSE
Page 22 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
1          SEJs are to be inspected by PWI once a month in extreme summer months.
<WA>True <CA>False
2          If the temperature rises above td+20 degree C, hot weather patrolling will be
started by Gang mate.<CA>True <WA>False
3.         On   ballasted   deck   bridge   the   trolly   refuge   should   be   min.   100m
apart.<WA>True <CA>False
.4          A ramp of 1 in 1000 shall be given before closing the tamping work.<CA>True
<WA>False
5          . Any deviation from the dimension of schedule I will require prior sanction of
CRS.<CA>True <WA>False
Q1.      Write short note on.
Gauge variation.
Ans.    This is measured as deviation from nominal gauge which is 1676mm for BG.
Unevenness.
Ans.    This is measured in terms of difference in longitudinal levels over a fixed base.
It is measured over a chord of 3.5M for left and right rails separately.
Cross level difference.
Ans.    This is measured in terms of relative difference in level of 2 rail tops measured
at the same point.
Twist.
Ans.    This   is   measured   in   terms   of   change   in   cross   levels   per   unit   length   of
measurement. This is denoted as mm/metre.
Q2.      What are service tolerances?
Ans.    These are tolerances to which track parameters may vary any time during the
service.  These   are   based   on   acceptable   limits   of   riding   comfort   in   relation   to   the
vehicles in use.
Service Tolerances for 120kmph on BG.
S.no.    Parameters. Tolerances.
01.       Gauge.
(a)       On straight track. +6mm-3mm.
(b)       On curves upto 4 0 +13mm-3mm.
02.       Twist.
(a)       On straight and curved track  2mm/m.
other than transitions.
(b)       On transition. 1mm/m.
         Alignment.
(a)       On straight. 5mm.
(b)       On curves. 5mm.
Q3.      What are new track tolerances Give values for Gauge, Alignment, Cross Level
and Sleeper Spacing.
Page 23 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Ans.    These are the tolerances prescribed for laying the new track. The measurements
should   be   taken   in   floating   conditions   three   months   after   normalisation   of   speed.
Following are the tolerances prescribed for the track laid with new material.
S.no. Parameters. Value.
01. Gauge. + -2mm.
02. Expansion Gap. + -2mm.
03                    Squareness of joints on +-10mm.
straight.
04. Sleeper Spacing. +-20mm.
05. Cross Level. +-3mm.
*****
Page 24 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
QUESTIONAIRRE (OBJECTIVE TYPE)
Gr. ‘C’ to ‘B’
9.Works
SN    Question Answer
1       Standing earnest money for contract having tender value Rs.18.00 lacs
Rs. 18,000/-
Rs. 20,000/-
Rs. 22,000/-
Rs. 10,000/-
Rs. 20,000
2       The tender cost of work is Rs. 4,20,000/-. What will be earnest money?
Rs. 10,500/-
Rs. 10,000/-
Rs. 9,500/-
Rs. 11,000/-
Rs. 10,000/-
3       The tender cost of work is Rs. 5,60,000/-. What will be security Deposit?
Rs. 35,500/-
Rs. 37,000/-
Rs. 33,000/-
Rs. 30,000/-
Rs. 35,500/-
4       What is the validity period in which tender offer remain open?
60 days
90 days
75 days
180 days
90 days
5       Maximum limit of one quotation can be called by J.A. grade officer
Rs. 50,000/-
Rs. 40,000/-
Rs. 1,00,000/-
Rs. 2,00,000/-
Rs. 1,00,000/-
6       The tender cost of work is Rs. 15 lacs. What will be cost of tender form?
Rs. 500/-
Rs. 1,000/-
Rs. 1,500/-
Rs. 2,000 /-
Rs. 1,000/-
7       How many estimates are in use?
6
7
8
5
7
8       The stage at which addendum cum corrigendum is required-
When the individual item varies 10% from the agreement
When the individual item varies 20% from the agreement
When the individual item varies 25% from the agreement
None of the above
When                 the
individual         item
varies 25% from the
agreement
Page 25 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
9       The cost of a deposit work is Rs. 10,00,000/- . How much amount the party
has to deposit with Railway man for preparation of plan and estimate-
Rs. 10,000/-
Rs. 20,000/-
Rs. 15,000/-
Rs.25,000/-
Rs. 20,000/-
10     The cost of open tender is  Rs. 4.50 lacs. Who will be the tender committee
members?
Sr. Scale Office of executive Department and Sr. Scale Officer of Account
Department.
Sr. Scale Office of executive Department and Jr. Scale Officer of Account
Department.
Jr. Scale Office of executive Department and Sr. Scale Officer of Account
Department.
Jr. Scale Office of executive Department and Jr. Scale Officer of Account
Department
Jr.   Scale   Office   of
executive
Department   and   Jr.
Scale     Officer     of
Account
Department
11     The approved list of ‘C’ class Contractor is maintained at
Assistance Divisional Office
Divisional Office
Zonal Railway man office
None of the above.
Divisional Office
12     How many type of approved list of contractor is being maintained?
4
5
6
3
5
13     How many class of tender is being used?
Open tender and limited tender
Limited tender and single tender
Open tender, limited tender and single tender
None of the above.
Open             tender,
limited   tender   and
single tender
14     Contractor   has   demanded   an   arbitration   of   Rs.   9.50   lacs.   How   many
Arbitrator will be appointed?
Sole Arbitrator
Two Arbitrator
Three Arbitrator
None of the above.
Sole Arbitrator
15     Who is competent to appoint an arbitrator
DRM
Territorial HOD
Principal HOD
General Manager
General Manager
16     Delayed Tender is-
When tender is received before the due date and time.
When tender is received after the due date and time, but before opening the
tender.
When tender is received after the due date and time and after opening the
tender.
None of the above.
When     tender     is
received   after   the
due   date   and   time
and   after   opening
the tender.
Page 26 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
17     Arbitration Act was revised in
1994
1996
1998
1999
1996
18     Urgency Certificate is issued for the work-
to carry out the repair work affected by flood.
To carry out the repair caused due to accident.
Or other unforeseen contingency caused due to accident or flood.
All of the above.
All of the above.
Page 27 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
QUESTIONAIRRE (OBJECTIVE TYPE)
10.Water Supply & Hydraulics
SN    Question Answer
1       Device meant for measuring the discharge in a pipe is called …………….       Venturimeter
2       Device meant for measuring velocity in a pipe is called ……………. Pitot Tube
3       The   sum   of   Potential   energy,   Pressure   energy   and   ......................energy
constitutes Bernaullis theorem with empirical formula (Z+
p / w +v 2 / 2g )
Kinetic
4       For a circular channel of diameter ‘D’, the depth of flow for maximum
velocity is ..……..D.
0.81
5       For a circular channel of diameter ‘D’, the depth of flow for maximum
discharge is …….D.
0.95
6       Best trapezoidal channel of best section giving maximum discharge should
have side angle………….to the horizontal.
60 O
7       Triangular channel of best section giving maximum discharge should have
side angle …………...to the horizontal.
45 O
8       The water quality is said alkaline when pH value is………….and acidic
when pH is …….
8 to 14  &  1 to 6
9       The   required   residual   chlorine  in   drinking   water   at   every  tapping   point
should be……….ppm.
0.5
10     ……………… is the term used in which liquid offers resistance to any
deforming forces.
Viscosity
11     A type of flow in which fluid particles move in layers is called……………
…….. flow.
Laminar
12     Rate of pumping should be ………………than the rate of recharge in a
tubewell for longer life of a tubewell.
lesser
13     The radial distance between two tubewells should not be less than ………
….…mtrs.
150
14     The   viscosity   of   a   fluid   ……………………...with   the   increase   of
temperature.
decreases
15     The density of a fluid…………………..with temperature and pressure. Varies
16     The property of a fluid by virtue of which the molecules of a liquid remain
attached to each other is called……………………..
adhesion
17     The property of a fluid which offers a tensile resistance at its surface is
called…………….
Surface Tension
18     Viscosity of water is ……………… times higher than the viscosity of air.       50
19     A circular plate of diameter ‘d’ is held vertically in water so that the upper
end of the vertical diameter is at water surface. The depth of centre of
pressure is…………………..
0.62 d
20     When a body is immersed in a liquid, the liquid will exert an upward force
on the body equal to the weight  of the liquid displaced. The upward force
is known as ……………….
Buoyancy
Page 28 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
11.Soil Mechanics & Construction Materials
Q1 The desirable silt contents in an alluvial soil suitable for the production of structural
bricks is
(a)       20-30% (b)       40-65%
(c)       65-75% (c)       less than 10 %
A. (a)   20-30%
Q.2      Water absorption in 1st class bricks should not be more than
                     
(a) 10%                   (b) 15%
                        (c) 20%                   (d) 25%
A. [c]   20%
Q.3      The dimensions of standard brick are
                     
(a) 19x9x9 cm          (b) 20x10x10 cm
19x9x4 cm    
 
Ans. [c] 19x9x9 cm.
Q.4      Efflorescence of bricks is due to
(a)       Soluble salts present in clay for making bricks.
(b)       High porosity of bricks
(c)       High silt content in brick earth.
(d)       Excessive burning of bricks.
A. [a]   Soluble salts present in clay for making bricks.
5.         Seasoning of timber is necessary to:
(a)       Increase the fire resistance
(b)       Increase the vermin resistance
(c)       Reduce the microbial substances
(d)       Expel the moisture present in timber.
A. [d]   Expel the moisture present in timber
Q.6      How many days, a timber may require for natural seasoning
(a)       20 months (b)       4-6 month
(c)       1 year (d)       2 year
A. [b]   4 – 6 months
Page 29 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q7       Soundness test of cement is done to determine its
a.   Durability in sea water.
b.   Free lime content.
c.   Iron oxide content.
d.   Alumina content.
A. [b]    free-lime content
Q .8.    The volume (cu. m.) of a bag of cement is about
                   
(a) 0.035           (b) 0.053                     (c) 0.35             (d) 0.53
A. [a]   0.035
Q.9.     Segregation in cement concrete is defined as
                   
(a)       Separation of coarser particles from mix.                      
(b)       appearance of cement and water slurry over surface of finished concrete.
(c)       formation of capillary pores in fresh cement concrete.
               
A. [a]   Separation of coarser particles from mix.
Q.10.   When cement content in cement mortar is reduced, the
a.   slump increases
b.   consistency decreases
c.   compressive strength decreases
A. [a]   slump increases
Q.11.   Normal curing period for lime mortar is
         
(a) 3 days                   (b) 7days
(c) 10 days                 (d) 14 days
A. [b]   7 days
Q.12.   The compacting factor test of cement concrete determines its
           
(a) strength                 (b) porosity
(c) workability             (d) degree of compaction under loads
A. [c]   Workability
Q.13.   In anticorrosive paints, pigment used is
         
(a) aluminum powder       (b) red lead
(c) copper powder  
       
A. [b].  Red lead.
Page 30 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q.14     The function of a base in paint is
a.   to provide a film on surface
b.   to hide imperfection of surface
c.   to reduce shrinkage cracks in paint film.
d.   to make paint of desired consistency
   
A. [c]   to reduce shrinkage cracks in paint film.
         
Q.15.     In railway tracks metal used is
           
(a) cast iron             (b) wrought iron
(c) mild steel            (d) stainless steel
A. [c]   mild steel
Q.16.    A well graded sand has particles
a.   mainly of just one size
b.   mainly of sand combined with gravel
c.   of number of sizes
d.   with uniformity coefficient very near to unity
A. [c]    of number of sizes
Q.17     The possibility of quick sand condition will be there when flow of water to soil is
(a) horizontal                (b) upward
(c) downward                (d) radial
A. [b]    upwards.
Q.18    Determination of coefficient of permeability by means of a field pumping test
can be done for
         
(a) soft clay                   (b) sandy soil
(c) stiff clay                   (d) marine clay
A. [b]   Sandy soil
Q.19.    Optimum moisture content is the moisture content at which
a.   settlement is maximum
b.   permeability is more
c.   dry density is maximum
d.   shear strength is less
A.  [c].  dry density is maximum
Q.20.     Primary consolidation is due to
a.   expulsion of water
b.   compression of air
c.   expulsion of water
d.   structural adjustment  of grains
A. [a]    expulsion of water
Page 31 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
12.Multiple Choice Questions on Land Management:
Q.1. Height of boundary stone above ground is
a)         500 mm b) 600m          c) 400mm       d)   Any   one
of above
Ans. a)      500mm
Q.2 Maximum distance between two boundary stones is
a) 100m   b)  150m    c) 200m    d)  None of these
Ans. c)      200m
Q.3 Hard type encroachment is:
a) Category’A’       b)   Cat. ‘B’           c)   Cat.   ‘C&D’         d)   Cat.
“A&B”
Ans. Cat. ‘A’
Q.4 Which of the following required PPE Act proceedings to remove:
a) Category’A’       b)   Cat. ‘B’           c)   Cat.   ‘C&D’         d)   Cat.
“A&B”
Ans. Cat. ‘A’
Q.5 Standing Committee of land rates consists of
a)  CE/G, FA&CAO, CSC
b)  CE/MRTS, CE/G, FA&CAO
c)  CE/MRTS, FA&CAO, CCM
d)  CCM, CE/G, FA&CAO
Ans. c)   CE/MRTS,FA&CAO,CCM
Q.6. Maximum licensing period of land for Government school for
children of Railway employee is :
a)  30 yrs.  b)  40 yrs.  c)  50 yrs    d)  45 yrs.
Ans. a)   30 yrs
Q.7 Maximum licensing period of land for Kendriya Vidalaya is:
a)  50 yrs.  b)  60 yrs.  c)  80-90 yrs.  d)  99 yrs.
Ans. d)   99 yrs
Page 32 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q.8 Contingency   charges   included   by   Railway   in   relinquishment
estimate is:
a)  4%  b)  3%   c) 5%   d) 3-5%
Ans. b)  3
Q. 9 Outsider encroachment falls in category of encroachment as:
a) Cat.’ A&C’   b)  Cat. ‘ C&D’   c)  Cat. ‘B&C’   d)  Cat. ‘A&B’
Ans. d)    Cat  ‘A&B’
Q.10 Revision of license fee will be done at the increment per annum
a)  10%   b)  12%    c)   15%     d)  None of these
Ans. a)   10
Q.11 In case of GMF, AEN can extant the licensing period up to the
total of
i.   3 yrs.  b) 5 yrs.   c) 7 yrs.   d) 4 yrs.
         Ans. b)    5 yrs
         Q.12 1 Kanal is equal to:
a)  5400 sqft   b)  5000 sqft   c)  5445 sqft    d)  4500 sqft
          Ans. c)  5400 sqft
         Q.13 I begah is equal to :
a) 27220 sqft   b) 2700 sqft    c)  27225 sqft    d)  30000sqft
           Ans c)  27225 sqft
          Q.14. Within station premises who is responsible for encroachment?
a)   SM &  RPF Inspector
b)  SSE/Works
c)   SSE/Works & SSE/P.Way
d)  All of above
Ans. a)   SM&RPF Inspector
Page 33 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q. 15. Railway Board’s letter No. 90/LML/14/34 is related to:
a)  Encroachments   b) Cat C&D encroachment
c)  Trespassing        d)  PPE Act
Ans. b)  Cat C&D encroachment
Q.  16. General size of plot licensed for GMP is
a)  1-5 acres   b)  1-3 acres   c)  1-4 acres   d) None of these
Ans. b)  1-3 acres
Q.17 R & R Policy is applicable on:
a)  Circulating areas     b)  Safety zone
c)  Officer Colony       d)   All of above
Ans. b)Safety zone
Q. 18. Records for ownership of land in states other than U.P. is:
a)  Musabi    b)  Khasra   c)  Jamabandi   d)  all of them
Ans. c)   Jamandi
Q.19. Authenticated land plans bears the number as:
a)  CE   b)  LCO   c)  HQ    d)  None of these
Ans. b)  LCO
Q.20 Scale of authenticated land plan is:
a)   equal to Revenue scale
b)  Half to Revenue scale
c)   Double to Revenue scale
d)  1 cm to 40 m
Ans. a)   Equal to Revenue scale
Page 34 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
13. ROB/RUB
Q.1. What is the carriageway width of two lanes Road Over Bridge:
(a) 8.0m          (b) 7.5m          (c) 7.00m        (d) 8.5m
 
Ans. 1.  (b)
Q.2. What is the minimum clearance between top of highest rail level to bottom of
girder of Road Over Bridge:
(a) 6500          (b) 6250          (c) 6300          (d) 5870
Ans. 2.    (d)
Q.3. What is the minimum horizontal distance between centerline of track to pier:
(a) 3550          (b) 3500          (c) 3525          (d) 3575
Ans. 3.    (a)
Q.4. What is the minimum horizontal distance between centerline of track to abutment:
(a) 4500          (b) 4550          (c) 4350          (d) 4375
Ans. 4.    (c)
Q.5. How much TVUs are required for cost sharing of two lane ROB in lieu of level
crossing:
(a) 2,00,000    (b) 1,50,000    (c) 3,00,000    (d) 1,00,000
Ans. 5.    (d)
Q.6. How much and which charges are levied for construction of ROB/RUBs on deposit
terms in replacement of level crossings and work executed by Railway?
Ans. 6. There are following charges which are levied for construction of   ROB/RUBs
on deposit terms in replacement of level crossing and work executed by Railway:
1.   D&G (supervision) @ 12.5 %
2.   P&E charges @ 2%
3.   Departmental charges @ 12.5%
4.   Capitalized Maintenance charges @ 30% capitalized
5.   Contingencies @ 1%
Page 35 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q.7. How much and which charges are levied for construction of ROB/RUBs on BOT
basis involving closure of level crossings and work executed by Railway?
Ans. 7.   Following charges are levied for construction of ROB/RUBs on BOT basis
involving closure of level crossings and work executed by Railway:
1.   D&G (supervision) @ 12%
2.   P&E charges @ 2%
3.   Maintenance @ 30% capitalized
4.   Contingencies @ 1%
Q.8. What is B.O.T system?
Ans. 8.    Under BOT system, the entrepreneur provides the full funds and builds the
ROB/RUB as per plans and drawings approved by the Railway administration/road
authority   and   the   private   entrepreneur   is   permitted   to   levy   toll   on   road   traffic   for
specific period.  At the end of the agreed period, the structure would revert back to road
authority.
Q.9. What is the carriageway of two lane ROB on National Highway:
(a) 10.00m      (b) 8.5m          (c) 9.50m        (d) 9.00m
Ans. 9.     (c)
Q.10. Which para of Engineering code deals with cost sharing of ROB/RUBs:
(a) 1716          (b) 1814          (c) 1816          (d) 1819
Ans.10.    (c)
Q.11. How much P&E charges are levied on deposit/BOT works of ROB/RUBs:
(a) 1% (b) 3% (c) 2% (d) 4%
Ans. 11.   (c)
Q.12.   How much D&G (Supervision) charges are levied on deposit/BOT works of
ROB/RUBs in case of the work is executed by Railway:
(a) 12% (b) 13% (c) 11.5%        (d) 12.5%
Ans. 12.   (d)
Page 36 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q.13. How much charges are levied on deposit/BOT works of ROB/RUBs in case the
work is executed by party under Railway supervision:
(a) 6%   (b) 6.25%        (c) 6.50%        (d) 6.15%
Ans. 13.   (b)
Q.14.   How   much   capitalized   maintenance   charges   are   levied   on   deposit/BOT  cost
sharing works of ROB/RUBs:
(a) 30%  (b) 25%          (c) 3% (d) 4%
Ans. 14.   (a)
Q.15. How much department charges are levied on BOT work of ROB/RUBs:
(a) 12.5%         (b) 12%          (c) Nil (d) 10%
Ans. 15.   (c)
Q.16.What and how much charges are levied on cost sharing works of ROB/RUBs?
Ans.   16.There   are   following   charges   which   are   levied   on   cost   sharing   works   of
ROB/RUBs:
1.   D&G @ 8.22% on Railway share
2.   D&G @ 12.5% on State share
3.   Contingencies @ 1% on Railway and State share
4.   Departmental @ 12.5% on State share
5.   Capitalized maintenance @ 30% on State share
6.   Supervision charges @ 12.5% on capitalized maintenance.
Q.17. Who has to construct the bridge portion and approaches of ROB in case of cost
sharing works?
Ans. 17.   The bridge portion will be constructed by Railway and approaches will be
constructed by State Government in case of cost sharing works.
Q.18. Who will bear the cost of extra length for future tracks?
Ans. 18 The Railway will bear the cost of extra length of ROB for future tracks.
Page 37 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
Q.19. Who will bear the cost of construction of extra width of ROB as per provision in
para 1816 of Engineering code?
Ans. 19. State Government will bear the cost of extra width of ROB as per provision in
para 1816 of Engineering code.
Q.20. What is the full name of BOT?
Ans. 20 Build-Operate-Transfer.
Page 38 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
14. ESTABLISHMENT MATTERS AND LABOUR LAWS
Q.1. Mark correct answers:
1.1 From which date the reservation of OBC become applicable:
i.   8-9-1993,
ii.   8-9-1992
iii.   8-9-1995
iv.   8-9-1990
Ans.1.1. (i)
1.2 What is the percentage of reservation in Northern Railway for SC/ST/OBC:
i.   20:5:27
ii.   19:4:27
iii.   15:7:27
iv.   15:10:27
Ans.1.2. (ii)
     1.3  What is the provision of issuing Railway passes to OBC candidate for written
test/viva voce of direct recruitment:
i.   Passes are given
ii.   Passes are not given
iii.   Passes are given only written test
iv.   None.
Ans.1.3. (ii)
1.4   How   many   Union   representatives   are   allowed   to   attend   PNM   meeting   at
Headquarter level?
i.   20
ii.   No limit
iii.   30
iv.   None
Ans.1.4. (i)
  1.5    How many PREM Meeting are held at division level?
i.   Six
ii.   Four
iii.   Eight
iv.   None
Ans.1.4. (i)
Q.2. Give the correct answer:
2.1 What is the maximum advance admissible on account of marriage of daughter?
Ans.2.1. 10 months
Page 39 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
2.2 Which is the standard form used for issuing the charge sheet to a retired Railway
employee?
Ans.2.2. SF-14
2.3 When was the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) formed?
Ans.2.3. On 27 th  Feb.1985
2.4 How many cases can be taken by a retired employee to act as defence helper?
Ans.2.4. Not more than 5 cases at a time.
2.5 What minimum and maximum family pension admissible?
Ans.2.5. Minimum- Rs.1275/- P.M
Maximum- Rs.9000/- P.M.
Q.3.    Filling up the blanks:
3.1 Who is the Chairman of PREM meeting at Headquarters level?
Ans. 3.1.         GM
3.2 Reservation to SC/ST candidates in promotion from Group ‘C’ to Group ‘B’ is
applicable w.e.f. ---------------------------.
Ans. 3.2.         20.7.74
3.3 The maximum limit for accumulation of LHAP is -----------------------.
Ans. 3.3.         No limit
3.4 Contract Labour Act 1970 was introduced on -------------------------.
Ans. 3.4.         10.2.1971
Q.4.  Write true or false against the following:
4.1 There is a chance where some punishment cannot be imposed by the authority that
issues S.F 11.
Ans. 4.1.         True.
4.2 Three dependent can be included in the Ist class privilege pass but total should not
exceed five.
Ans. 4.2.         False.
Page 40 of 41Northern Railway
Objective Questions                                                                     Engineering Department
4.3   TA  is   not   admissible   to   union   representatives   when   they   have   attended   PNM
meeting out of Headquarter.
Ans. 4.3.         True.
4.4 A casual labour can be granted Temporary status after completion of 120 days
continuous service in construction organization.
Ans. 4.4.         False.
4.5 Special family planning increment cannot be granted on a certificate issued by non-
Railway Hospital.
Ans. 4.5.         False.
Page 41 of 41
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